Archived posting to the Leica Users Group, 1999/08/31

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Subject: RE: [Leica] RE: Depth of field... (more than you wanted to know)
From: Paul Chefurka <Paul_Chefurka@pmc-sierra.com>
Date: Tue, 31 Aug 1999 09:31:17 -0700

Jim,

I agree that the point of my post may have drifted from that of the original
poster.  What caught my attention was specifically that "rule" you quoted
(which I have heard repeated often as gospel truth and only today
questioned).

I'm still baffled as to how the 1/3 - 2/3 rule can be supported
scientifically, when it apparently isn't supported empirically.  My
assumption is that when Leica engraves DOF markings on their lenses, the two
markings (near and far) indicate the same size CoC, for the same degree of
"relative unsharpness" of a point source.  So, take my experiment of
focussing the 35/2 at 2m and f/16.  The lens DoF scale (engraved on there by
gnome #134) clearly indicates that points at 1.1m and points at 10m will
have the same CoC, with points at 2m being sharp.  The distribution in
front/behind the point of focus is a long way from 1/2 - it's about 1/9.  So
how can this "rule" be supported?

The f-stop used does alter this ratio: at f/16 focussed at 2m the
distribution is 1/9, at f/11 it is 1/3.5, at f/8 is 1/2.5, and at f/5.6 and
f/4 it is right about 1/2...

So what gives - is it Leica's technique for calculating "acceptable CoC" at
different apertures, or is the rule an approximation for wider apertures
only?  Or is the subject actually more complex than that?  No points for
suspecting that the prize is behind door number 3...

Paul Chefurka