[Leica] Does anyone have a simple way to explain this

[afirkin at afirkin.com (afirkin at afirkin.com)]

> I think it is just something to verify with each lens.  Before digital
> and 35mm cameras, most of my photo experience was with larger format
> cameras (4x5" and 8x10" negative size).  Even there, stopping down to
> f/64 was problematic sometimes.  The saving grace, as noted, was that I
> enlarged to at most 16x20" and the 8x10's were mostly contact prints.
> "Sharpening" did not exist, except for the painstaking procedure of
> making unsharp mask negatives for enlarging.  As an example, I have a
> Canon 70-200 2.8 IS lens.  It is extremely sharp, but a few days ago I
> accidentally took some images that turned out at f/32 and f/45.  They
> were unusable.  So, I don't have too much to add on a simple explanation
> except for, don't stop down that sucker too much (I seldom go beyond f/8
> to control DOF).
>
> Ken

Your experience with the canon lens would certainly fit the theory.

Cheers

Alastair